What leads you to believe that translating "theon" as "a god" in Acts 28:6 means that "theos" in John 1:1c must be "a god"? The structure of the clause in John 1:1c is totally dissimilar to the clause in question in Acts 28:6. And, in any case, John 1:3 answers the question as to the proper translation of John 1:1c; and I don't think John had Psalm 82:6 in mind in the least when he was writing his prologue. You might want to refer to Psalm 96:3-5 instead. John's timeframe is "the beginning". Israel's judges and rulers didn't exist yet. For that matter, the patriarchs didn't exist. Even more importantly, Adam and Even didn't yet exist. And, Isaiah 44:24 says Jehovah God was a hands-on Creator. Isaiah says the Jehovah stretched out the heavans by Himself and spread out the earth all alone. No one was with Him when he created every last thing. And yet for some reason, John says that the Word created every last thing. If the Word is not in some way Jehovah God, Isaiah makes Jehovah out to be a liar.
ANSWER: The Greek term "theon" is not rendered in Acts 28:6 as you falsely claim. You already lost your debate over "theon" because it is rendered "the God" and you claim Paul is to be rendered "the God" in Acts 28:6 is nothing short of blasphemy.
Also your meaning for "in the beginning" is very short sighted that it was only to go back before the Patriarchs and Judges in Israel?
In the Beginning is just that, before the earth was and before the founding of the world of mankind. And yes Jehovah was hands on for Jesus came to be by his side.
However in John 1:1, the KJV translators took the Greek word "theou"(of God) and virtually struck it out and replaced with the word theos(a god).
So John 1:1 should really read: "In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was of God."
John 1:2 gives further evidence, "This one was in [the] beginning with God." The beginning of "our system" before the world was.
"So now you, Father, glorify me alongside yourself with the glory that I had alongside you before the world was."(John 17:5)
"“Jehovah himself produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago. From time indefinite I was installed, from the start, from times earlier than the earth."(Proverbs 8:22-23)
Jesus was brought forth as with Labor Pains, like a birth.
"When there were no watery deeps I was brought forth as with labor pains, when there were no springs heavily charged with water. Before the mountains themselves had been settled down, ahead of the hills, I was brought forth as with labor pains,"(Proverbs 8:24-25)
That is why Jesus is(firstborn) of ALL Creation for he was Created then Creation came through him. "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation;"(Colo 1:15)
" All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence. What has come into existence by means of him was life, and the life was the light of men."(John 1:3-4)
"When he prepared the heavens I was there; when he decreed a circle upon the face of the watery deep,(Proverbs 8:27) Jesus was there because he is Jehovah's only begotten son. Created, brought forth as with Labor pains. Matter of fact, all the angels came before the founding of the earth, otherwise Jesus couldn't call himself the Bright Morning star.(Rev 22:16) But was Jesus the only "morning star"? The scriptures answer this question in the negative. Satan also worked along the Master Worker. This anointed cherub(morning star) was faithful for a time. In the Beginning at the founding of the world before falling(sinning). As Jesus was there helping, he came to be the master worker of all the angels.
"then I came to be beside him as a master worker, and I came to be the one he was specially fond of day by day, I being glad before him all the time, being glad at the productive land of his earth, and the things I was fond of were with the sons of men."(Proverbs 8:30-31)
After the earth and Adam, the son of God was created the scriptures indicate "the morning stars joyfully cried out together, And all the sons of God began shouting in applause"(Job 38:7)
"The true light that gives light to every sort of man was about to come into the world. He was in the world, and the world came into existence through him, but the world did not know him."(John 1:9-10)
"So the Word became flesh and resided among us, and we had a view of his glory, a glory such as belongs to an only-begotten son from a father;"(John 1:14)
"For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, in order that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."(John 3:16)
"No man has seen God at any time;"(John 1:18)
If you continue to push ahead that Jesus is God then you deny Jesus to be the Servant that was Chosen, you deny Jesus was firstborn of all creation. Therefore Satan won your soul because you are denying Jesus as the Christ.
"“Look! My servant whom I chose, my beloved, whom my soul approved! I will put my spirit upon him, and what justice is he will make clear to the nations. He will not wrangle, nor cry aloud, nor will anyone hear his voice in the broad ways. No bruised reed will he crush, and no smoldering flaxen wick will he extinguish, until he sends out justice with success. Indeed, in his name nations will hope."(Matthew 12:18-21)
"“We have found the Mes·si´ah”(which means, when translated, Christ).(John 1:41)
"Jesus Christ, “the Faithful Witness,"(Rev 1:5)
"the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God,"(Rev 3:14)
"Happy is the man that is listening to me by keeping awake at my doors day by day,"(Proverbs 8:34)
"Look! I am standing at the door and knocking. If anyone hears my voice and opens the door, I will come into his [house]"(Rev 3:20)
Without Christ there is No Hope.
Brother Rando
---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------
If you check any Greek text you will discover that, in fact, Acts 28:6 does use "theon"(I believe it's accusative, masculine, singular) but without the definite article. Thus, it's "a god" just as the NASB, NIV, RSV, KJV, and Jerusalem Bible render it. "Theon" only means "the God" when it has an accompanying definite article, "ton", as occurs in John 1:1b. "Ton theon" means literally "the God" as does "ho theos"(nominative, masculine, singular), though in that case it would be used as the subject in a sentence. If Luke had written that the people of Malta thought that Paul was "ton theon", Luke would have been saying that they thought Paul was "the God", or YHWH. However, since the natives of Malta were undoubtedly pagan polytheists, they would never have said that. And Luke didn't say they did.
Daniel B. Wallace once wrote: "In English the subject and predicate nominative are distinguished by word order(the subject comes first). Not so in Greek. Since word order in Greek is quite flexible and is used for emphases rather than for strict grammatical function, other means are used to distinguish subject from predicate nominative. For example, if one of the two nouns has the definite article, it is the subject...When a predicate nominative is thrown in front of the verb, by virtue of word order it takes on emphasis. A good illustration of this is John 1:1c...We know that 'the Word' is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: 'and the Word was God.'...why was theos thrown forward?...why does it lack the article? In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: 'What God was, the Word was" is how one translation brings out its force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word...with the person of 'God'(The Father). That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John's wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism."
All of this is supported by Paul in another "elegantly terse theological statement" in Colossians 2:9: "For in Him all the fulness of Deity dwells in bodily form." In that one sentence Paul destroys all forms of docetism including Gnosticism and, again, Arianism.
None of the rest of your comments addressed the point I was making. I didn't reproduce the reference, but Isaiah 44:24 says: "Thus says Jehovah, your Redeemer, and the one who formed you from the womb, I, Jehovah, am the maker of all things, Stretching out the heavens by Myself, And spreading out the earth all alone."
Isaiah is telling us that Jehovah was a hands-on Creator. The words "all alone" in the last line can be translated as asking a question: "Who was with me?" The answer we properly come to is: No one was with Jehovah when He created the heavens and the earth. It was done by Jehovah alone. Therefore, as I said in my original question, when both John and Paul tell us that the Word/Son created all things(John 1:3: "All things came into being by(or, through) Him and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being." Colossians 1:16: "For by(or through) Him(the beloved Son) all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or Dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created by Him and for Him."), it is necessarily the case that the Son/Word is somehow Jehovah God, too. Otherwise, Isaiah is not telling the truth. And, since the Holy Spirit inspired everything that Isaiah wrote, the Holy Spirit would be lying. This is obviously impossible; and you are left with no other option than to say, "and the Word was God." I encourage you to take Jehovah at His word and accept His invitation in Isaiah 1:18 to heart.
Additionally, your claim that the KJV translators changed "theou" to "theos" in John 1:1c is ridiculous. If you have any documentation on that, I'd love to have you provide it to me. The KJV translators would never have attempted a stunt like that. The Geneva Bible was written 50 years prior to the KJV and it translates John 1:1c the same way and Tyndale's translation(35 years prior to the Geneva Bible--1525) influenced the KJV. So, James I's translators didn't change anything: The Greek manuscripts all along had "theos" at John 1:1c.

