by royston79 » Thu Nov 21, 2013 12:15 am
In a case of dog on dog aggression with modest vet bills but no human medical bills (say only minor scratches to the arm but no treatment), could the victim still sue for "other" damages, maybe even punitive, if, (assuming that vicious propensity IS verified) the neighbor's dog raced into her yard, practically killed her dog in front of her, causing her to acquire a fence and reside in fear of that dog undertaking it once again? With the a single-bite rule, the insignificance of dog leash laws with respect to negligence, and the law seemingly in a state of flux proper now, I am a bit confused about regardless of whether damages is restricted to vet and medical even if you can prove vicious propensity.