by ailwyn » Mon Jun 18, 2012 4:38 am
You're probably screwed if this free rent deal is not in writing. Do you have it in writing on a receipt? Or a billing statement? Or somewhere? Anywhere?
You are generally correct when you say that oral agreements are valid and enforceable. However, when you have two agreements that cover the same subject matter, then the agreement that is in writing is going to override any oral agreement. If you think about it for a second, it makes sense. Say you and I agree that I will sell you my car, and the price will be $2000. We put it in writing, "I will sell you my car for $2000." Then, at the same time we say, "OK, lets actually make it $1500." But we don't put the $1500 in writing. Now, a week later, when I bring you the car, you only have $1500, and I refuse to sell unless you have $2000. So, we both go in front of a judge. The judge has in evidence our written contract for $2000, and your story that we actually orally agreed on $1500. So what is a judge to believe? Well, he will believe the agreement was for $2000, because if we went through the trouble of putting it in writing, then the writing must reflect the true terms of our agreement.
Moral of the story: Get it in writing!! Or, if your oral agreement completely contradicts your written agreement, then definitely correct your written agreement!!