by Kendon » Mon Feb 10, 2014 10:13 am
Did I misunderstand the question? I read it to be saying that both had to be positive to be "without a doubt positve" in the legal or employment sense. Sounded like someone was looking for an out, to me - that you couldn't be proven to be using meth just by testing positive for it, alone - but that it had to be positive for both, and if it wasn't positive for both, then it wasn't proof.Does any of this make sense?