Would this be considered medical malpractice?

[teyrnon72]

I have been going to an eye doctor for a couple of months complaining of losing vision on one of my eyes. He has just given me some drops and saying that wearing eyeglasses would help me improve. I now have gone to a separate doctor since my situation hadn't improved at all but gotten worse, and the new doctor tells me I have advance glaucoma and in danger of becoming blind from one eye. Can medical malpractice be argued against the doctor who had me going around in circles saying it was just glasses i needed? Both doctors are from an insurance plan.

[baigh75]

You would have to be able to prove that the treatment from the first doctor degraded your health in some way. And that means you'll have to be able to find a doctor to testify to that in court.

[jerard]

a misdiagnosis does not always = malpractice. you would have to prove that because of his actions (the first doctor) you sustained more damage due to his treatment (the eye drops and glasses) that will unfortunately be hard to prove. and in this case, probably not winable